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 Forum index » Diversions » Perplex City Puzzle Cards » PXC: Silver Puzzle Cards
[Puzzle] Silver #238 Riemann
Moderators: AnthraX101, bagsbee, BrianEnigma, cassandra, Giskard, lhall, Mikeyj, myf, poozle, RobMagus, xnbomb
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pheebs
Guest


has anyone tried FIVECOWS??

Spoiler (Rollover to View):
JOKE!!!!!


my guess would be trying something to do with secure credit card details on the internet and prime numbers...

PostPosted: Wed Nov 22, 2006 12:17 am
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Boomanda
Guest


Gödel's Incompleteness Theorem

As the card states, the Riemann Hypothesis is that " The real part of any non-trivial zero of the Riemann Zeta Function is ˝.". If that's the case, doesn't that mean that the hypothesis has to have a solution? Suppose it can't be proven or disproven. If if was possible to find "a real part of a non-trivial zero of the Riemann Zeta Function" that was NOT ˝, it would be possible to disprove it. So, if you prove that it's not possible to prove or disprove it, you effectively prove that there is no such thing as a counterexample. Hence, every "real part of a non-trivial zero of the Riemann-Zeta Function" must be ˝, as if it weren't, it would be disprovable. If every "real part of a non-trivial zero of the Riemann-Zeta Function" is ˝, the Riemann Hypothesis is correct.

If I'm not extremely mistaken, wouldn't this mean that proving the Riemann Hypothesis would be as 'simple' as proving it has no proof.

Wouldn't it?

PostPosted: Fri Nov 24, 2006 9:45 am
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jaikaiman
Boot


Joined: 08 Oct 2006
Posts: 55

 

I think you could be right Boomanda...lol. I do beleive that there must be something to this puzzle that can be input into the solve page...I have previously tried unsolvable and Five Cows LOL
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PostPosted: Fri Nov 24, 2006 2:49 pm
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Boomanda
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Okay. I just read a book on Fermat's Last Theorem, which stated more or less the same thing, (The Theorem was that x^3+y^3=z^3 had no solutions, by the way.) that should the theorem be unprovable, it would be true, as finding a counterexample would be impossible. That should apply to the Riemann Hypothesis as well, I'd imagine. So... knock yourself out solving it. ^^ As you might know, it's soon been 150 years since the hypothesis was created.

( In case you want to read about the incompleteness theorem... http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/G%C3%B6del%27s_incompleteness_theorem)

PostPosted: Fri Nov 24, 2006 7:17 pm
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GasparLewis
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Joined: 19 Nov 2005
Posts: 474
Location: vicinty of NYC

Fermat's was not just for cubes, but for any power greater than 2.

x^n + y^n = z^n has no real answers for any n > 2

Andrew J. Wiles proved it in the nineties, formally; he's head of the Princeton University Mathematics Department as we speak.

-------------------

But, going back to the point; yes. There are four possibilities of the proavbility of the Riemann hypothesis: true, false, unprovably true, unprovably false. BUT, since being false would indicate a zero off the critical line, one must be able to find that zero, or else it's not there. Thus, it cannot be unprovably false.

True, false, or unprovably true: that is the question.

PostPosted: Wed Nov 29, 2006 12:45 pm
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jaikaiman
Boot


Joined: 08 Oct 2006
Posts: 55

Surely if it was unprovably false then it cannot be false either...oooh my head hurts!
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PostPosted: Wed Nov 29, 2006 4:29 pm
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GuyIncognito
Decorated


Joined: 20 Jul 2006
Posts: 295

For completeness sake, I would like to quote GuyP of Mind Candy-fame (from the PerplexCity.com forums, 29.09.06, emphasis by me):

guymc wrote:
Riemann has always been controversial because it's so hard to solve (yes, it does require proving the Riemann hypothesis, there is no other puzzle on the card)


If anybody still has some excessive brainpower left to spend on this (besides working on the other META-puzzles), please don't let that disencourage you. Wink

PostPosted: Wed Nov 29, 2006 9:06 pm
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si
Guest


This may have been suggested already, apologies if it has, but as the card is a statement as pointed out in the earlier pages and there isn't actually a direct question or puzzle to solve (apart from the $1 million prize) has anyone tried on the solve page:

'What is the question'


Maybe it is as simple as that, realistically the answer to the problem on the card will never be proven in our lifetime and I cannot see the point of setting a card with no answer when the other 255 cards are all possible?

Worth a try !

PostPosted: Fri Dec 01, 2006 2:21 pm
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friscodude
Boot

Joined: 19 Mar 2006
Posts: 22

Could always try and hack the MindCandy answer database if worst comes to worse. Twisted Evil

Of course, that's probably nearly impossible, but I agree with the idea that you can't have to solve the hypothesis. I of course, don't physically have the card, so I can't try anything with it (burning, 3D glasses, anything stupid) and I'm stumped as to what the answer could be.

PostPosted: Sat Dec 02, 2006 6:33 pm
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gunny
Kilroy

Joined: 01 Dec 2006
Posts: 1

The problem is that, assuming that Mind Candy hasn't actually solved Riemann themselves, (which seems very unlikely) is what the actual question is, because if it is Riemann, how would MC know the answer? I think we can safely assume that the answer to the Riemann problem is not the answer to the card.

But at the moment, cracking the MC Dbases seems the only way to find the answer. Very Happy

PostPosted: Sat Dec 09, 2006 4:05 am
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Mindez
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Joined: 26 Feb 2006
Posts: 165

gunny wrote:
I think we can safely assume that the answer to the Riemann problem is not the answer to the card.


And yet, we can't. MC have TOLD us, plainly, that there is no solve to the card.
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PostPosted: Sat Dec 09, 2006 8:56 am
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Perplexed_Rug
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Riemann Schmieman

Managed to get on of these cards on the cheap and first glance, it reminded me of some mathematics we learnt during our computing course...

Euler studied this and came up with some equations which seemed to work along Reimanns case. In 1986 it was shown that the first 1,500,000,001 nontrivial zeros of the Riemann zeta function do indeed have real part one-half so maybe this card wants us to work out if the 1,500,000,002nd fits in the with equation.

The other thought is HOW on earth do you get those greek symbols into the solve field if the card asks for mathematical proof? Or do we just need to show our calculations in numbers...

The other option is to try and take the largest possible prime out there and see if that fits in with the Riemann equation....Now where did I put my version of CRAY?

Maybe, the answer is simple

Spoiler (Rollover to View):
SPLUNGE


PostPosted: Sun Dec 10, 2006 11:34 am
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themandotcom
Veteran


Joined: 28 Apr 2006
Posts: 136
Location: Syosset, New York, USA, Earth, Milky Way Galaxy, Universe

If anyone wants to *attempt* to do this card, i suggest reading Prime Obsession by John Derbyshire. Its a great book and its very informative, and you dont need a big math background to understand it
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PostPosted: Mon Dec 18, 2006 9:10 pm
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Si
Guest


How can anyone solve the card when we don't know what the question is?

If the answer to the card is to solve the Reimann hypothesis then we all know that's not going to happen so card in the bin time, but I can't understand why Mind Candy would put a card in that is (as far as we are concerned) is unsolveable.

Surely, the 256 cards are all solveable otherwise A - We are wasting money buying them, B - Mind Candy are very cruel or C - There is an answer but we are missing something.

Also, why choose this puzzle out of the Millenium puzzles - why not choose another one that could at least be attempted or possibly solved by someone in the near future?

I am probably wrong but something is not right with this card, I still believe that there is a solution (otherwise whats the point of having a solve page for the answer when Mind Candy wouldn't know the solve for Reimann as pointed out lots of times) and I hope someone solves it (if it can be lol) soon.

PostPosted: Wed Dec 20, 2006 6:40 pm
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Si
Guest


Guys, has anyone tried this as a solution :

The Bombieri-Vinogradov theorem is one of the major applications of the large sieve method. It improves Dirichlet's theorem on prime numbers in arithmetic progressions, by showing that by averaging over the modulus over a range, the mean error is much less than can be proved in a given case.

This result can sometimes substitute for the still-unproved generalized Riemann hypothesis.

Worth trying '(The) Bombieri-Vinogradov Theorem' as a solution?

PostPosted: Wed Dec 20, 2006 7:09 pm
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