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 Forum index » Archive » Archive: Perplex City » PXC: Project Syzygy Pre-Game
[LOCKED] [PUZZLE?] E Numbers
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thebruce
Dances With Wikis


Joined: 16 Aug 2004
Posts: 6899
Location: Kitchener, Ontario

neon snake wrote:
Any chance you can bullet point the points we've made that you disagree with, in as clear and concise a manner as possible?


umm... I don't think there's any point that we seem to disagree on, I do believe it's just a matter of interpretation. Obviously none of the mathematical proofs you've offered are wrong, or I claim to be more intelligent than the geniuses before us. I'm simply saying that proofs have to balance out. One side of a proof can't be infinite while the other is finite. otherwise they don't equal. obviously.

Anyway, the original point was about the certainty of any sequence appearing in e at some point. Some say it's a 100% chance that you will find any possible string at some point in e. Then it moved over to infinite random numbers, and non-repeating numbers such as e.


Quote:
I hereby ask that, if we can prove our arguments, then you do indeed stand corrected. I say this because it seems in some of your posts that you are simply rejecting proofs, although that may just be me misreading them.

I'm fairly confident it's simply a misreading between us. I'm not out to disprove any mathematical proofs, I'm simply pointing out where the concept of inifinity I've presented is being applied to the mathematical proofs. This was drawn from the idea that in dealing with an infinite length number, there is no possible way to arrive at a precise chance of something happening or not, because there is no upper bounds with which to calculate a chance.

As I said, if there's a proof that proves me wrong, then I'll stand corrected. Mathematically, I'm not disagreeing with anything, it's simply how we're defining, or describing, the concept of infinity when dealt with in math.

Quote:
OK. I think the problem here is that you think that an infinite series can't have an exact, finite sum.
Wrong. It absolutely 100% definitely definitely can.

I totally beg to differ.

Quote:
You said there was 'a nice proof of e^i*pi that used sin and cos' - AHH!!! Sin & Cos are infinite series!!!

*cough* provide the fomula that sin or cos uses to calculate a value. Say you were writing a program that didn't have any trigonometry functions, and you needed to create the sin and cos functions. What's the formula? sin and cos are essentially repeating infinite sequences. Because they're repeating sequences, by definition we can take any value from within the infinite length. That value will be static. Sin and Cos aren't infinite values, they are infinite sequences comprised of finite values. And, I'm sure you could find a value to punch into sin that would return an infinite value. And I'm sure you could prove it. The difference is, sin isn't a value in and of itself, it's basically a lookup to find a value in the series between -1 and 1. So in the end, finding the values of both sin and cos, already knock out the infinite variable. We're not calculating how long sin and cos are, we are taking a specific value in the series. So the infinite aspect is attributed to the lookup of a specific value, reducing the equation to a finite number. given the same finite input values for both sides of the equation, the original equation equates to the latter, thus the proof that the infinite aspects of e and pi are cancelled out when calculating to -1.

Quote:
1/3 = 0.333...
2/3 = 0.666...
3/3 = 0.999...

When really:

3/3 = 0.999.... = 1

Well, this is an argument that has been going on and on and on, all over the net... just doing a search to find out some official proofs brought me to a number of threads just like this one... long threads...
You know what the problem is? It's the concept of "infinity". In this example, it's pointless to argue one way or the other, because both are right. In a physical reality, if you take 9/10 of an object, and continue doing that for-ever, you will theoretically never have nothing left, there will always be 1/10 of what you previously had. However, algebraicly, if you decide to consider 0.999~ as the true value of 3*1/3, then theoretically, if you multiple each digit of 0.333~ by 3, then you'll end up with 0.999~ - but you will never end up with a decimal value of 0.999~ because whatever system you are using to calculate that value will never complete. So, algebraicly, you replace the infinite length of 0.999~ with some symbol for 'repeating' (here, ~). Thus you're treating 'infinity' as a variable. In the end, the actual value of 1/3*3 = (0.3~)*3, because you can't calculate every digit of an infinite number. Treating 1/3 as a decimal inherently has flaws if you simply ignore the infinite aspect of the value. 1/3*3 cancells the infinite value, where 0.3~ * 3 simply ignores the infinite aspect. You can't work finite decimal numbers with infinite concepts, and come out with a finite value. You can however work algebraicly with infinite concepts in order to end up with a finite or infinite value. 1/3=0.3~ (both sides of the equation include a concept of infinity)
0.3~*3 simply cannot be calculated.
1/3*3 can be reduced.
therefore, one can't state for 100% certainty that 0.3~*3 = 1/3*3 without assuming that the limit of a number is the number; that as n -> 1, n = 1.

However, I'm sure there will be rebuttles to this, and I wouldn't be surprised, because this is such a controversial topic, that as I said, has been going on since the concept was first considered. Doing a search for the proof through the internet will ... prove Razz that an answer has not yet been unanimously agreed upon. So really, it's pointless arguing. Smile

Quote:
check out an earlier post of mine -- same argument
he didnt believe me then so ill be very surprised if he believes you now.

I'm not alone Smile
And anyway, I believe someone else in this thread also rebutted that statement a while back.

Quote:
and i hope thebruce does well in all his studies

Actually, it is very very interesting, because it's going beyond the scope of tangible math, into a realm of philosophy in a sense, because infinity isn't a value that can be grasped or fully understood, yet the concept can either exist or not. Bringing that concept into math just screws everyone up Smile

Quote:
I am not sure how else to express this: a fraction is a value. It is not some sort of vague, incomplete thing that achieves pure precision, completion, or a status of a "number", by being written out in decimal form. It already is that.

A fraction is one representation of a number, whereas a decimal value is another.
The fraction can be reduced further to a decimal number. Where a decimal number can't be precise, a fraction may be used instead.
making 0.125 into 125/1000 isn't reducing the complexity, it's increasing it. Fractions and decimals are simply two ways of dealing with numbers - fractions are easier to work with without having to deal with precise values, whereas decimals are numbers reduced as much as possible to a base 10 notation in order to give as precise a value as possible to work with. Because of that, fractions have the added ability to deal with a concept of infinity that decimal numbers cannot.

Quote:
Why bother? Why go through all the trouble?? If you want to know the precise value of 1/3, just leave it written as 1/3, and be done with it

exaaactly. But assuming you need to split a 1 meter cable into 3 precisely equal lengths, will you ever be able to do it without having an exact measurement? If you tell the person '1/3m length please' (assuming to remain in m units), they'll either look at you wierd, or round 1/3 to 0.333some digit meters. Will you ever be able to have 3 pieces exactly 1/3m in length? On the flipside, will you ever be able to truly have a 1m long cable? hmm. Because as soon as you cut a piece of cable to what you best calculate as 1/3m, it becomes a finite length, no longer 1/3, but some length of 0.3333333... 3 of those, and you no longer have a 1m cable. Yet, you could cut 5 0.2m cables and have 1m cable in the end. 1/3 is not a tangible number to work with, whereas 1/5=0.2 is. The proof 3/3=0.9~ is an assumption that deals with the infinite length of the decimal representation of 1/3 in a tangible way, which it cannot be.

So there can be no parallel between equating a fraction that results in an infinite number, to a decimal representation of the infinite number. You can never write 1/3 as a decimal without including a notation for infinity. 1/3 is not a practical number to work with, but algebraicly (ie, within a formula, which can still be reduced) it can be used in order to attempt to arrive at a finite value.

'~', repeating, etc, whatever you want to call it, is not a mathematical variable with which to work. It's grammatical representation in decimal notation of a number which cannot be calculated. Any number 'repeating' should, and will, be converted into an algebraic equation in order to continue calculations with the equation. In other words, writing 0.3~*3 is an intangible, and incorrect, equation, because it assumes working with decimal values, 0.3~ of which is not a concept that can be handled. In a sense, 0.3~*3=0.9~ is like mathematical slang. It's neither here nor there. Some will stand by its certainty, and others will argue its invalidity. My parents hated 'canadian english' when they moved to Canada. But Canada speaks english just as England speaks english. Who's correct? One says ain't is a word, another says it isn't. Both can't be correct, and yet both are.

So again, an equation, a fraction, is the mathematical way to work with the concept of infinity. but an equation which cannot be reduced in such a way so as to remove the concept of infinity, can never reach a finite value. Practically, it's not feasible, unless the infinite value is 'considered' to be a sufficiently accurate finite value. Algebraicly, it's perfectly feasible, because proofs and equations can be used and punched in to other equations as much as necessary in order to come to practical results.
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PostPosted: Wed Dec 29, 2004 10:27 pm
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thebruce
Dances With Wikis


Joined: 16 Aug 2004
Posts: 6899
Location: Kitchener, Ontario

here's a link to one nice little thread where the guy sends in a few words what I've been saying...
http://www.labgoats.com/ads/view.php?idtag=2449&responses=12

another interesting thread...
http://www.tacalumni.org/article.php?story=20040109214003133#comments
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PostPosted: Wed Dec 29, 2004 10:44 pm
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yanka
Fickle


Joined: 06 Oct 2003
Posts: 1214
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Chris K wrote:
OK. I think the problem here is that you think that an infinite series can't have an exact, finite sum.
Wrong. It absolutely 100% definitely definitely can.

thebruce wrote:
I totally beg to differ.

Shocked



thebruce wrote:
A fraction is an equation...

yanka wrote:
A fraction is not an equation. [It] is... a number.

thebruce wrote:
[A fraction]... is not a precise value

yanka wrote:
a fraction is a [precise] value.

thebruce wrote:
fractions are easier to work with without having to deal with precise values



One definition of insanity:
Quote:
One definition of insanity is "to keep doing the same things and expect different results".

/me will now stop being insane Mr. Green

Happy New Year and wintry goodness, and much hearting to all Smile
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PostPosted: Wed Dec 29, 2004 11:56 pm
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Chris K
Boot

Joined: 15 Dec 2004
Posts: 37

So infinite series can't have exact finite sums?

Look at this triangle:



It's equilatrial.
I think you would agree that the angle is exactly 30 and the section at the bottom is exactly 0.5

That 0.5 was calculated with an infinite series!

Here it is (I don't know why you want it):


There you go.
Infinite series can can can can can have exact finite sums.

Do you want me to show you more parts of mathmatics and physics that fall apart if you don't believe that?

That last paragraph of yours makes me feel ill.
You have no idea what you are talking about.

EDIT__________________

You can't say that decimals are simpler or more accurate than fractions!

And can you please stop saying 'infinite numbers' when you mean recurring / irrational / transendental

PostPosted: Thu Dec 30, 2004 8:30 am
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tanner
Entrenched


Joined: 21 May 2003
Posts: 875
Location: (x,y,z,t,i, ...)+

tanner's adaptation of Chaitin's constant:

which gives the probability that for any set of posts, a universal forum machine will halt, where p is the number of members in the forum.

this number is not only irrational and transcendental but also unthinkable

Very Happy Very Happy Very Happy Very Happy
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But it doesn't matter inside the Gates of Eden" - BD


PostPosted: Thu Dec 30, 2004 10:46 am
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firefox
Unfettered

Joined: 28 Jul 2004
Posts: 333

tanner wrote:
tanner's adaptation of Chaitin's constant:

which gives the probability that for any set of posts, a universal forum machine will halt, where p is the number of members in the forum.

this number is not only irrational and transcendental but also unthinkable

Very Happy Very Happy Very Happy Very Happy



check-and-mate Wink
but then, can we find an exact value of p? or perhaps p is an infinite improbability, which may or may not have a finite string of possible numbers Rolling Eyes

happy new year peeps Wink

PostPosted: Fri Dec 31, 2004 6:54 am
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thebruce
Dances With Wikis


Joined: 16 Aug 2004
Posts: 6899
Location: Kitchener, Ontario

Chris K wrote:

Show me how you can calculate a value with that equation to give a result for sin(x).

Calculate the equation. Give X the value 30 degrees, and calculate the sum on the other side. Show the process where the sum equation on the right, results in the finite value that sin(x) gives, and I'll show you where the concept of infinity, the 'n=1->infinity', it cancelled out...

Quote:
You can't say that decimals are simpler or more accurate than fractions!

For practical purposes, ie real-world, not algebraic, fractions are't a tangible value. They are expressions of equations from which to arrive at practical, usable results, outside of further algebraic math.

Quote:
And can you please stop saying 'infinite numbers' when you mean recurring / irrational / transendental

each of those three are infinite numbers. By self-definition, if a decimal number repeats, it's infinite; If it's infinitely random, it's infinite. A decimal number is either finite or infinite, having an end, or having no end. I'm simply saying infinite numbers so I don't have to say recurring/irrational/transcendental numbers all the time... any decimal number where the last digit can never be calculated.
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PostPosted: Fri Dec 31, 2004 7:20 am
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Chris K
Boot

Joined: 15 Dec 2004
Posts: 37

For god's sake!
Just give it up!!!

You said earlier that you had just never seen an infinite series give a finite sum.

I just showed you that you can.

All you need to know is that sin is calculated by adding up an infinite amount of numbers that get smaller and smaller, but - for 30 deg - it comes out at exactly 0.5

I'm sorry, you clearly have no idea what you are talking about.

Some of the stuff you have said is just so ridiculous I can't even comprehend it.

Just accept that the sum of an infinite amount of numbers can exactly equal a 'normal' (irrational) number.

This:

Quote:
So again, an equation, a fraction, is the mathematical way to work with the concept of infinity. but an equation which cannot be reduced in such a way so as to remove the concept of infinity, can never reach a finite value. Practically, it's not feasible, unless the infinite value is 'considered' to be a sufficiently accurate finite value. Algebraicly, it's perfectly feasible, because proofs and equations can be used and punched in to other equations as much as necessary in order to come to practical results.


is complete gibberish.

The formula for sin(x) is basically:



PostPosted: Fri Dec 31, 2004 12:32 pm
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thebruce
Dances With Wikis


Joined: 16 Aug 2004
Posts: 6899
Location: Kitchener, Ontario

Chris K wrote:
For god's sake!
Just give it up!!!

Whoah there! Calm down...

Quote:
You said earlier that you had just never seen an infinite series give a finite sum.

An infinite series where there is no repetition... sin and cos are essentially repeating infinite series. That's like me saying you can't know the sum of the repeating digits in 0.123123123 repeating. The sum of the repeating digits is 6. 1+2+3. That's not the sum of every digit in the infinite number, which ends up being (1+2+3)*n where n -> infinity. That sum I can't calculate. For trig functions, the values are a series of repeating values. So it's easy to pull a finite value from within the series. As I said, the 'infinite' concept is in the lookup process, not in the calculation itself. It's like a modulus. Let's take 0.1234repeating as the infinite series (ie sin) and we know that there are 4 numbers between 1 and 4 in the repitition (ie values between -1 and 1 in sin). I'm no longer doing a calculation on the infinite value of the series, I'm doing a tangible calculation at some point within the finite series. If I want to find what the 157th digit in the series is, I mod 157 by 4, which tells me to return the first digit of the series (eg sin(30) essentially tells me to look up the 30/360th value given the equation between -1 and 1. sin(390) gives the same result as sin(30). Why? Because I'm looking up a value in a finite series. But I'll get to the calculation part below...

Quote:
All you need to know is that sin is calculated by adding up an infinite amount of numbers that get smaller and smaller, but - for 30 deg - it comes out at exactly 0.5

The formula for sin(x) is basically:


or


So show me either calculation (and what do you mean by 'basically'? It's not exact? Or you're simply not writing out the entire equation?). What is your process for calculating that equation when punching in 30, to have a resulting value of 0.5? Without the assumption that lim A -> B = B (which is precisely the topic that is still being debating all over the internet, the world no less).

Quote:
I'm sorry, you clearly have no idea what you are talking about.

No I just don't think I can explain it enough for you to grasp.
Did you take a look at the labgoats url I linked to above?

Quote:
Some of the stuff you have said is just so ridiculous I can't even comprehend it.

Because it involves infinity Razz
(relax, it's a joke)
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PostPosted: Fri Dec 31, 2004 2:34 pm
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Chris K
Boot

Joined: 15 Dec 2004
Posts: 37

I don't think you know what an infinite series is.

A repeating number isn't an infinite series. It's a number.

An infinite series is a series of numbers not a series of digits.

0.123123123123123123 <== not an infinite series
1 + 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/16 .... <== an infinite series

Therefore, you don't know what you are talking about.

----------

Quote:
eg sin(30) essentially tells me to look up the 30/360th value given the equation between -1 and 1. sin(390) gives the same result as sin(30). Why? Because I'm looking up a value in a finite series. But I'll get to the calculation part below...


Oh no.
Sine isn't a series of answers.
Otherwise you wouldn't be able to put any number through it (30.00123 for example)

PostPosted: Fri Dec 31, 2004 2:40 pm
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thebruce
Dances With Wikis


Joined: 16 Aug 2004
Posts: 6899
Location: Kitchener, Ontario

Chris K wrote:
I don't think you know what an infinite series is.
A repeating number isn't an infinite series. It's a number.
An infinite series is a series of numbers not a series of digits.

0.123123123123123123 <== not an infinite series
1 + 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/16 .... <== an infinite series

Therefore, you don't know what you are talking about.

I know perfectly well the difference between an infinite series and an infinite number... I was drawing a parallel... sin is function for which any number can be calculated to retrieve a known value between -1 and 1. sin itself is not an infinite number, it's an infinite repeating series of values between -1 and 1. sin is a function which retrieves a value at a point within the known to be limited series, or set of numbers, between -1 and 1. I never said sine had a specific amount of possible values. Sin is not an infinite value itself.

Quote:
Oh no.
Sine isn't a series of answers.
Otherwise you wouldn't be able to put any number through it (30.00123 for example)

I know, Im' saying sine is a lookup which calculates a value within a given, known range.

Yet again I ask, please show me the process of solving the equation that calculates sin, which when punching in 30, arrives at the value 0.5, without the assumption that lim A -> B = B.
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PostPosted: Fri Dec 31, 2004 3:11 pm
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neon snake
Veteran

Joined: 18 Mar 2004
Posts: 70
Location: Chelmsford, UK

thebruce,

I'm still keen before moving much further to have a definitive list of the points you disagree with/interpret differently to us. Reason being, the points we seem to disagree on are changing.

For example the statement - 'in an infinitely long string of random digits, the probability of any possible finite string being found is 100%.' - seems to have divided us - I say its 100%, you say its both 100% and 0%.

We then moved on to various discussions whether there is such a thing as an infinite series, or an infinite string, and how you can only prove a string or series is infinite by calculating all the possible values (?), around recurring decimals, representing fractions in decimal notation, and numbers like pi and e, where representing them in decimal requires a rounding at some point. Various people have voiced opinions, proofs and facts, and I'm starting to lose track of which bits you agree with, and which you don't. And indeed, what we're discussing, as we keep moving the goalposts.

I'd like a list, so that we can be a bit more constructive in where we're going.


Incidently, I had a look at the links you posted - helped me pass a very boring afternoon at work.

Some of the argument (and it was as difficult to track as this thread) seemed to revolve around the following-

1 divided by 3 is 0.3recurring - in decimal notation.

0.3recurring multiplied by 3 is 0.9recurring - in decimal notation.


Therefore maths is broken (or words to that effect, but spread over a couple of days worth of posts).

This is incorrect.

1 divided by 3 is one third. In decimal notation we say 0.3recurring, because there exists no other way to write it.


However, 0.3recurring multiplied by 3 IS NOT 0.9recurring - its 1 (exactly 1).

The only way you get to 0.9recurring is to multipy each of the 3s in the string by 3. The problem lies here.

If you do that, then you have ignored the recurring part of the number, and have just multiplied 0.3 by 3, and then added the recurring part back on afterwards.

Try it on a calculator (NOT IN EXCEL). You'll get 1 divided by 3 =0.333333333.

Now multiply by 3. You'll get 0.999999999. This is because the calculator works out 0.3recurring to a set number of decimal places, but can't handle true recurrence.

Now try in excel, which is better at maths than a calculator, and can handle true recurrence, understands that it's a mere representation, and gives an exact value of 1! Magic.
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PostPosted: Fri Dec 31, 2004 3:28 pm
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Chris K
Boot

Joined: 15 Dec 2004
Posts: 37

I really don't have the energy for this.

You clearly have little knowledge of fairly simple mathmatics or even mathmatical language and notation.

Rest assured, that if you keep adding up these terms:

1 + 0.8 + 0.64 + 0.512 + 0.4096 ...

where every term is 0.8 times the one before, to infinity, you will come to exactly 5.

If you can't accept that then you can't accept trigonometry or calculus.

------------------

- Sin of a number is calculated by adding up an infinite number of numbers.
- The result is often a rational number

Sin is not some kind of 'look-up' function.

If you want to find out the length of the side marked x in this picture:


Then add up all of these terms:

1 - 1/6 + 1/120 - 1/5040 + 1/362880 - 1/39916800 ......

PostPosted: Fri Dec 31, 2004 4:43 pm
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ustice
Boot


Joined: 25 Oct 2004
Posts: 59
Location: Gainesville, FL

Real quick. Not getting in to an argument, but I love this example.

take a line (its easier to illustrate) and assign it a langth of 1 membit (fake unit)

________________________________


now split it in half
________________ ________________

now we have 1/2 + 1/2 membits = 1 membit

split the right one in half
________________ ________ ________

now we have 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/4 membits = 1 mmbits

split again
________________ ________ ____ ____

1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/8 = 1 membit

again
________________ ________ ____ __ __

1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+1/16 = 1 membit

and conntinue...

1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/16 + 1/32 + 1/64 + 1/128 + 1/256 + 1/512 + 1/1024 + ... = 1 membit

We are not removing removing anything in our cuts so we KNOW that we have 1 membit total, and yet in this thought experiment we can make an infinate number of cuts. this can be represented by the infinite sum:

OO
----
\ 1
> ------- = 1 membit
/ n
---- 2
n=1


infinite sum giving a finite value.

I love that one, though it is more fun when you start with a square and chop it up as you get the golden spiral, but that is harder to illustrate in text without taking up the entire screen.

Yay math.
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PostPosted: Fri Dec 31, 2004 5:56 pm
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Chris K
Boot

Joined: 15 Dec 2004
Posts: 37

Quote:
OO
----
\ 1
> ------- = 1 membit
/ n
---- 2
n=1


Sigma notation in ASCII.

Now that's class.

PostPosted: Sat Jan 01, 2005 5:37 am
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