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 Forum index » Archive » Archive: Perplex City » PXC: Project Syzygy Pre-Game
[LOCKED] [PUZZLE?] E Numbers
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neon snake
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Location: Chelmsford, UK

A few points.

Firstly, I'd like to echo a couple of statements.
1) This has been for the most part, entirely enjoyable. I've learned some things, remembered a lot that I thought I'd forgotten, and generally thought more about maths than I have since finishing my degree.
2) Yes, please let's keep this friendly, on all sides. The few days between Christmas and New Year were NOT enjoyable, as we all got involved in name-calling, and being generally unpleasant. For my part, I apologise if any of my posts can be included in the general unpleasantness.
3) thebruce, I'm quite willing to shake your virtual hand. I'm also quite happy to continue, if we can keep the tone at the level it is currently at.
4) I think the 'E numbers' thread may indeed enter PPC legend. Good on us. Lets hope when the game starts that we apply as much though to the puzzles as we have here.

I'll end this post here, as I want it to stand seperate from the next one... Wink
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PostPosted: Tue Jan 04, 2005 2:38 pm
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neon snake
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Right, let's get on with it.

I think I've got (more-or-less) my bullet points.

Some of us assert the following (please let me know asap if I've worded any of these incorrectly, so I can edit).

1) If a string is both random and infinitely long, then the chance of any given finite string appearing is exactly 100%.

2) 0.9recurring = 1.

3) An infinite sequence can equal a finite sum.

4) In the number e (infinite, but non-random, as it can be calculated), the chance of a given finite string appearing is either 0% or 100%. It can't be both at the same time.


Note that these statements are not necessarily connected, neither do they follow on from each other.


Some of us ( Very Happy ) refute these statements.

Correct?
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PostPosted: Tue Jan 04, 2005 2:45 pm
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neon snake
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Now, I'll leave 2 and 3 alone. Whilst I agree with them, my maths isn't good enough to prove them. There are others here with higher ability than myself.

4 seems hardly worth bothering with. If we know the values in a string of digits (infinite of otherwise), then we can obviously determine whether a second, finite string appears or not. If it does, the 'chance' is 100%. If it doesn't, it's 0%.

I may have slipped up there, but I don't think so. SilentAvenger, you seem to have the knowledge on this one, so any thoughts from you on my statement above would be appreciated!

That leaves me with 1.

I'll start again, and see where we get.

My assertion is:

'If a numerical string is infinitely long, is truly random and contains all of the digits from 0 to 9, with each having a chance of being the next digit in the string,

then

the chance of any finite string appearing is exactly 100%.'

I think the statement covers all my bases, and states the assumptions clearly.

Right. Firstly, the statement assumes that infinite trials/tests/whatever are possible. If disputing my statement, I ask that you accept this. Please do not introduce arguments along the lines of:
'It's impossible to perform an infinite amount of trials, you'd die'
Let's stick to trying to prove/disprove the portion after the 'then'!

As pointed out by SilentAvenger, this statement can be proved using Kolmogorov's zero-one law (which I had never heard called that, interestingly).

Definition here- http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kolmogorov%27s_zero-one_law

Is the 'event' (a set finite sequence being found) a tail event?

Yes, as it is probabilistically independent. IE it does not rely on anything that has gone before it (similar to the coin-toss example included in the definition).

Is there a chance that the 'event' might happen?

Yes, since all numbers each have a chance of appearing, then it is actually possible.

Therefore, since it is possible, and it is a tail event, then the probability of the 'event' eventually occuring must be 1 (or 100%).



I believe that to be robust.
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Lao Tzu


PostPosted: Tue Jan 04, 2005 3:11 pm
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SilentAvenger
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1. thebruce, 0.3~ is not irrational, irrational = cannot be written as the quotient of two whole numbers, not cannot be displayed in decimal form.

2. neon, about e, I'm not even sure myself. It *is* a calculated number after all, and that might screw around with some stuff, but yea, the chance, because e is infinite, has to be either 0 or 1, I'm just not sure if you can determine for a given string which one it is, without going and looking for it.


*agrees to virtual hand shaking*
*hopes this will enter PPC history along with the postcard code*

notice: HISTORY, as in, stuff not happening right now.

oh, and on a side note, we were forced to prove in class today the sum (a1/1-q) of infinte regressive geometric series (those that get smaller all the time ->0), in a twist of irony Smile

PostPosted: Tue Jan 04, 2005 3:26 pm
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Chris K
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We don't know all the digits of e so I think it must be impossible to know if any given string will appear in it.

I guess that e will be fairly important in the game so here are some fun facts about it:

- It is named after the brilliant Swiss mathmatician Leonhard Euler
- It is transcendental
- It can be calculated with the infinite series:
2 + 1/2! + 1/3! + 1/4! + 1/5! ....
Or the limit:
(1 + 1 / x ) ^ x
- e ^ x differentiates onto itself
- The area under the graph y = 1 / x between x = 1 and x = e ^ n, is n, For any value of n.
- It is the base of the natural logarithm, ln

PostPosted: Tue Jan 04, 2005 4:18 pm
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Centipede
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Joined: 17 Sep 2004
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It is equal to the mass of the object times teh speed of light squared.


....no, wait, wrong 'e'

Dammit why do they need to keep reusing letters and symbols for different things? Why couldn't Einstein's 'E' be like a lightning bolt or something?

PostPosted: Tue Jan 04, 2005 4:43 pm
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Rei
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Ok I gave up reading this properly a while ago (i normally read it at 1am, doesnt go down well)

I talked to my maths teacher today (masters maths) who descided that the probability of any combination/permutation of numbers turning up in something like e is 0, not 1.
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PostPosted: Tue Jan 04, 2005 5:02 pm
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SilentAvenger
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Rei, consider the finite sequence "1". It obviously appears in e. -> Teacher is wrong.

Centipede, Euler found that out. Thats why he called degrees of infinity with the hebrew letter aleph Smile

PostPosted: Tue Jan 04, 2005 5:17 pm
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Olorin
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Centipede wrote:
It is equal to the mass of the object times teh speed of light squared.


....no, wait, wrong 'e'

Dammit why do they need to keep reusing letters and symbols for different things? Why couldn't Einstein's 'E' be like a lightning bolt or something?


'Cause he used 'E' (capital), while Euler used 'e' (lowercase) Smile
ANd Einstein's E actually comes from Energy so he really made sense... now Euler... well, I'm not sure if he was so ego-maniac to name a number after himself, or if people after him decided to name that number 'e'...

F.O.R.

PostPosted: Tue Jan 04, 2005 5:30 pm
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Olorin
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SilentAvenger wrote:
Rei, consider the finite sequence "1". It obviously appears in e. -> Teacher is wrong.



Ah yes, that's what kept me interested in school... trying to figure out when they were trying to BS us Smile
F.O.R.

PostPosted: Tue Jan 04, 2005 5:31 pm
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Rei
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Hmm it was at 9:30am when i talked to her... and i think i've forgotten bits of it... anyway she disagrees with you.

mooo! (i give up again, dont respond directly to me please -_-)
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PostPosted: Tue Jan 04, 2005 5:58 pm
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neon snake
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I think what teacher probably mean't was finding all sequences, rather than any.
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PostPosted: Tue Jan 04, 2005 6:04 pm
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thebruce
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Ok, I'll do my best to reply to your points, since it seems the discussion still wants to continue, by request and comments Smile

Quote:
Some of us assert the following...<snip>...Some of us ( Very Happy ) refute these statements.
Correct?

...Smile correct, as it pertains to practical results, or absolute results. Pardon my terminology. I'll clarify my positions on the statements. And remember, my perspective always assumes we're looking for precise values. Beyond that, existing claims are still valid, but those claims beyond what I'm discussing.

neon snake wrote:
1) If a string is both random and infinitely long, then the chance of any given finite string appearing is exactly 100%.
...
My assertion is:

'If a numerical string is infinitely long, is truly random and contains all of the digits from 0 to 9, with each having a chance of being the next digit in the string,

then

the chance of any finite string appearing is exactly 100%.'

Technically, if you say that the random number does contain all of the digits 0-9, is it truly random? When you say infinite random number, I consider that each digit may be one of the digits between 0-9. The 0 1 law, quotes "an infinite sequence of independent random variables (not necessarily identically distributed)" - by saying each digit does appear once in the infinite number, that's a relation between digits (at some point, every number that has not appeared previously must appear). If each digit's chance is self-contained, then there still exists a chance that any specific digit may never appear, even if it's allowed to appear. If each digit, independently, may be any of 0-9, then independently, all digits have a chance to be the same number. Given an infinite length random number, there are 10 possible permutations that consist of entirely the same number - 0.0~, 0.1~ to 0.9~, so the chance in a truly infinite random length number, with an infinite number of possible permutations, of arriving at a single 0-9 digit infinite number is 10/infinity. Whereas, coming up with an equation to calculate the chance of every number appearing at least once, which I don't have the energy to do, would end up approaching 100%. Or, what's the chance, for each digit, that that digit will be the same as the one before it? 1/10. So after an infinite number of permutations, there will always be the chance that each number is the same as the one before it, thus that 9 of 10 numbers may actually never appear in a truly random infinite length number string.

So my assertion is,
'If a numerical string is infinitely long, is truly random and [i]may contain any or all of the digits from 0 to 9, with each having a chance of being the next digit in the string,
then
the chance of any finite string appearing is either 0% or 100%.'[/i]
based of course, on Kolmogorov's 0-1 law. Does that make a little more sense from my perspective?

Quote:
Yes, since all numbers each have a chance of appearing, then it is actually possible.

Each number has a 1/10 chance of appearing. Each number also has a 9/10 chance of not appearing. On a per digit basis. Given that each number has a chance of appearing, then it is actually possible that all numbers will appear. But it is not definite, because there's always the chance that a number will have never appeared.

Quote:
2) 0.9recurring = 1.

We'll let that one come up again if it wants Smile though it's been discussed to death hehe

Quote:
3) An infinite sequence can equal a finite sum.

If the series is 0's, otherwise it approaches (geometric) or wavers (repeated) around a specific value. But this dives back into the debate from before. Smile The infinite sum comes to a set of possible values, or a limit, unless it's the sum of infinite 0's.

Quote:
4) In the number e (infinite, but non-random, as it can be calculated), the chance of a given finite string appearing is either 0% or 100%. It can't be both at the same time.

4 seems hardly worth bothering with. If we know the values in a string of digits (infinite of otherwise), then we can obviously determine whether a second, finite string appears or not. If it does, the 'chance' is 100%. If it doesn't, it's 0%.

I'd rather say that in a number such as e, where uncalculated (beyond the last known calculated digit) numbers are unpredictable, then we'll never know if a sequence appears in it until the number is calculated far enough. e, for instance, is a constant we can continue to work with through subsequent iterations. A random number is unpredictable, so that's really the only difference. There is a chance that a random number could turn up the value of e for instance, because each digit in the random number has a 1/10 chance of being the same digit as its position in e. However the chance of a random number entirely returning exactly e becomes 1/infinity assuming that e is infinitely long. So, the chance the random number returns the first 2 digits of e is 1/100... first 5 digits, 1/100000... first infinite digits (full value of e), 1/infinity.
Anyway, that's a different topic Smile

As you say, given we can determine if a sequence appears in e or not, because it can be calculated, the chance is either 0% or 100% - If it does, it's 100%; if it doesn't, it's 0%. Neither can be determined equally because it requires calculating for eternity. All we know is it does if we eventually find it, otherwise, we simply won't know.

Quote:
1. thebruce, 0.3~ is not irrational, irrational = cannot be written as the quotient of two whole numbers, not cannot be displayed in decimal form.

Yes, I made the mistake of referring to irrational as a number that can't be written as decimal, when it's actually the other way around, and can't be written as fractions. Transcendental numbers are also irrational, as you know. Smile I actually edited my last post in reviewing it to fix that definition mistake (I may have missed some spots though)

Quote:
oh, and on a side note, we were forced to prove in class today the sum (a1/1-q) of infinte regressive geometric series (those that get smaller all the time ->0), in a twist of irony

Very Happy

Quote:
Quote:
I talked to my maths teacher today (masters maths) who descided that the probability of any combination/permutation of numbers turning up in something like e is 0, not 1.

Rei, consider the finite sequence "1". It obviously appears in e. -> Teacher is wrong.

agreed. It's quite obviously not 0, or e wouldn't exist. Confused hehe
Quote:
I think what teacher probably mean't was finding all sequences, rather than any.

Yeah, that would make more sense...

Here's one thing... assuming by definition that X (an infinite, non-repeating, calculated value - ie, the answer to an equation) does contain all numbers 0-9 at some point, I will concede that the chance of a sequence of numbers appearing in e rises the more you calculate, and rises exponentially the shorter the sequence is. ie, the chance of any 5 digit sequence appearing in the first 1000 digits is far greater than the chance of any 500 digit sequence appearing in the first 1000 digits.

Interesting, thinking through... if the number of possible values of a 3 digit number using 0-9 is 1000 (000-999), then you'd think that you'd have a 100% chance of finding the sequence at some point before reaching the 1000th digit... but then you have to remember that some 3 digit sequences within the number may repeat at various points in the first 1000 digits, so the chance isn't a definitive value... interesting where that thought process leads...

but never mind, that's my brain going off on a tangent... Smile
Ok, and I've got to stop making long posts... maybe it's all the quoting that's doing it... *sigh*
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PostPosted: Tue Jan 04, 2005 6:06 pm
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Chris K
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Good to see you're still flat out denying that 0.9~ = 1.

Can you provide any links that say you can't work in decimal with recurring numbers?

Is there anything wrong with this:

0.2~ * 3 = 0.6~

?

PostPosted: Tue Jan 04, 2005 6:41 pm
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neon snake
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Quote:
if the number of possible values of a 3 digit number using 0-9 is 1000 (000-999), then you'd think that you'd have a 100% chance of finding the sequence at some point before reaching the 1000th digit


Or, to make it a bit simpler -
If the number of possible values in a 2 digit number is 100, then it appears to be 100% by the 100th digit.
Or, in a 1 digit number, it would seem to be 100% by the 10th digit.

Or, if you flip a coin twice, it should be 100% that it will come up heads once?

Very Happy

The actual chance is 75%.

Let me explain...

There is a 50% chance of getting a head on the first throw, and a 50% on the second, right? These are independent of each other.

There are 4 possible outcomes of throwing a coin twice:
1. 2 heads.
2. 2 tails.
3. 1 head, 1 tail (in that order).
4. 1 tail, 1 head (in that order).

Each has equal probability (25%). Outcome 2 is the only one that doesn't contain a head. This means there is a 75% of chance of getting a head in 2 throws.

Or, label the probability of success (a head) on the first coin toss 'a'. Label the 2nd 'b'.

The equation to work out the probability of 2 heads is a+b-ab (50%+50% %- 25%) = 75%.

Same theory applies for the number sequence you mentioned. You would expect it to be 100%, and it very nearly is, but not quite.






Very Happy
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Lao Tzu


PostPosted: Tue Jan 04, 2005 6:44 pm
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