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 Forum index » Archive » Archive: Perplex City » PXC: Project Syzygy Pre-Game
[LOCKED] [PUZZLE?] E Numbers
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Shish
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Joined: 24 Nov 2004
Posts: 51

The difference between 1 and I contains I-1 blocks, and the difference between 0 and 1 is I blocks? Something like that seems to make sense, I'm unsure of the terminology though :/
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PostPosted: Fri Dec 24, 2004 3:01 pm
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Olorin
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neon snake wrote:
Embarassed bugger.

Let me rephrase something I said earlier...

'The chances of any finite number (including E numbers for food) appearing in the infinite string 'e' is pretty high, all things considered.

Ahem. That's better.


AH yes...
that's *exactly* what I was thinking on day 1 Smile

Thanks for putting it down in so many words Smile

F.O.R.

PostPosted: Fri Dec 24, 2004 3:14 pm
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SilentAvenger
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neon snake, the number of REAL numbers between 0 and infinity and the number of REAL numbers between 0 and 1 is the same, but the number of INTEGERS from 1 to infinity is smaller than the number of REAL numbers between 0 and 1.

And you know whats evil? That function by the guy who's name I can only pronounce but not spell, starts with a D:

A function which is 1 for every irrational number, and 0 for every rational number. See, THAT is evil.

PostPosted: Fri Dec 24, 2004 6:48 pm
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thebruce
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edit: sorry, this is long... I just rambled on and on... I promise I won't keep going on about this, I don't want this to turn into a heated debate, which tends to happen when discussionary threads like this start getting long posts like this... Confused

neon snake wrote:
Mathematically speaking:
The chance of a finite sequence being found in an infinite random sequence absolutely is 1, with no possibility of it being 0. The proof has been presented several times above.

On the contrary, I've seen people presenting formulas the show that the certain chance cannot be proven. Mathematically, just because something is 'essentially' some value, does not make it a value. Just because something approaches 1 at infinity does not make it 1. It will never reach one - that's the definition of 'approaches'.

Quote:
This is a mathematical principle. It's not something we're unsure of, and are trying to prove - it's something we are 100% sure of, and are trying to present existing proofs in a way that make sense to people who havn't seen them before, or who have not sat through the same amount of maths lectures that we have.

Then challenges to the statements should be a good brain workout Smile. You can never be 100% sure that any number is infinitely long. How can you test that a number never ends? If you keep calculating digits, at some point, you'll die. Pass on the torth, and at some point the next person will die. Who's to say that the last number someone looks at won't be the 2nd to last number in the value? Infinity is not a mathematical certainty that is something we can grasp.

As for proof, I'm not a mathematical guru... I can't provide numerous advanced mathematical equations to prove any of my statements... but at the same time, mathematical equations are the evidence, which only prove theories that have the same properties... ie, as soon as an equation assumes that (eg) if lim x -> 0 therefore x=0, then that equation by nature does not apply to a value in which x never reaches 0. It becomes a different equation, proving a different theorem.

So to prove that any length of any sequence of numbers will ALWAYS appear at some point in an infinite random number, there must be an equation or formula whose result will say for a certainty what that chance will be. Funny thing is, remember, dealing with infinity, no equation can be proven. Chance never dictates that an event will happen at any point - only 100% chance can state that. But in an infinite random number, there will always be a chance that a sequence will never appear. even if after eons of generating a random sequence, the chance of a specific sequence appearing is 99.999999999999999%, there's still the chance it will not appear. 'For all intents and purposes', the chance of a sequence appearing in an infinite random string is 100%. But is it truly 100%? never...

like we said before - given that there is a chance that an infinite random number may result in all 1's, which means that the sequence you look for which does not contain just 1's will never exist.

Quote:
The rephrase I presented above was due to my original off the cuff comment (which started the debate), which was made without a good enough knowledge of the nature of 'e'. I believed it to be random; it has been presented that it is not (ie. the next digit is calculable, which is obvious now that the formula has been shown!).

yes, e is a different case because it can be calculated. Therefore it should be possible to write a formula to find out at what digit a specific sequence appears. If it is in fact an infinite number, the formula should always be able to give a result, given enough computing time.

Quote:
Infinite numbers are subject to mathematics in the same way as ay other number - they have laws, and can be used in calculations etc etc.

the concept of infinite in math can only be cancelled by another concept of infinity... as long as there's an odd lim-> in an equation, the result can never be definite... (of course, I may be wrong on that, as my highest math education was high school Smile but I love philosophy hehe)

Quote:
The sequence between 1 and infinity is smaller than that between 0 to 1.

I havn't specified any rules, because that spoil it.

There is a way of counting where this is true, and I've been deliberately vague about it.

Discuss.


I would be curious to know how this is proven... there are an infinite number of integers between 1 and infinity (which in itself is an incomprehensible statement), and there are an infinite number of real numbers between 0 and 1. There may be a higher degree of numbers between 0 and 1, but 2*infinity is still infinity...

really what you're saying is that given x where x is any number, and y=2x, y will always be greater than x... but assuming x=infinity, y=2*infinity, well, y is still infinity... give x a value, and yes y will be greater, but make x infinity and y will also be infinity...

there is no formula to state how many infinite integers there are past 1, and likewise for the number of real numbers between 0 and 1. You can write a formula that can prove that for every 1 number of the former, there are 2 numbers of the latter, but when you make the statement bringing infinity into the mix, you don't deal with strict values any more, you deal with the intangible.

Those the two statements below seem to describe the same thing, they disagree when the value being checked is infinity.
A is twice B, therefore A > B
A is infinity, B is infinity

with A and B both being infinity, there is no possible way to know how many entries there are in either, so no conclusion can be drawn about which is bigger... regardless of the relation between the two. But you can say that if stopped at any point, A will always be bigger than B. What the mathematical formula will prove is the latter. Given any value of B, A will be larger. But as soon as you give B a value, it is no longer infinity. Infinity is not a mathematical value with which to calculate. It's an idea that can be applied to the mathematical process to help understand or grasp a concept which otherwise would have no representation in a mathematical formula. x -> 0 doesn't define x with a value, it defines x with an idea, a visualization which can be used in equations.

Quote:
Quote:
'The chances of any finite number (including E numbers for food) appearing in the infinite string 'e' is pretty high, all things considered.

AH yes...
that's *exactly* what I was thinking on day 1
Thanks for putting it down in so many words

ditto Very Happy

Quote:
neon snake, the number of REAL numbers between 0 and infinity and the number of REAL numbers between 0 and 1 is the same, but the number of INTEGERS from 1 to infinity is smaller than the number of REAL numbers between 0 and 1.

Just a quick reiteration... I have a habbit of babbling Razz

both results give an infinite number. There are an infinite number of integers after 1, and there are an infinite number of real numbers between 0 and 1. As an equation, R=I*n. So essentially at any point in the calculation, with as many I's as you can calculate, you can know that there will be more real numbers. But then the number in equation is no longer infinity, it's the number you've calculated. So if I=infinity, then R=n*infinity=infinity, therefore R=I. Once again, when dealing with infinity you have to deal with an incomprehensible input. Both R=infinity (where I=infinity), and R=I*n for any value of I. The mathematical proof I'm sure someone will quote will always give a larger number of Real numbers than Integers, when a value is put in place for one or the other - but then it's not an infinite number in the equation.



So Merry Christmas! I shouldn't be here, I should be sleeping... God knows I'll be wrong about something here cuz I'm working on a fried, and now refried Coffee brain...
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PostPosted: Sat Dec 25, 2004 2:41 am
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SilentAvenger
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thebruce,
1. Mathematics today has many tools to deal with infinity. As a matter of fact the whole concept of derivatives and integrals rely on the fact that you can sum up and infinite number of parts, each with the width of zero. You need to understand that when we are dealing with an infinite random number, we are dealing with the abstract concept of one, and do not need to go calculate an actual RNG to prove the theory. Nobody went and checked that for every value, 1 = sin(X)^2 + cos(X)^2, but it has been proven to be true. Furthermore, nobody went and checked that there are an infinite number of primes, but it has been proven. This is the magic of math.

2. When you have a limit, x -> n, you may very well treat x as if it were n, if it was mathematically feasible. For example:
sin(x)/x lim x->0. You cannot directly enter 0 into this equation, but you can calculate the projected that this function will have at x = 0. Because of that, if lim x->1, if you are taking x out to infinity, its value is truly one.

Quote:
Infinity is not a mathematical certainty that is something we can grasp.


Au-contrare, it is very well a mathematical certianity, and this is proven with the following proof.

Let X be the biggest number possible.
For every X, there will be an X+1 which is bigger than X,
therefore X does not exist -> There is an infinite number of numbers.

And the whole concept of "grasping" something is a different philosophical debate on its own, which I will not get into now.


Also, if I'm not mistaken, it was proven that e is irrational and transcendental. This means that no matter how long you sit there calculating it, it will never repeat or end. The way you calculate e proves this, well atleast the never-ending part, I dont remeber how the prove the non-repeating part.

About the sizes of infinity, I hope you are aware of the concept of complexity in computer programming.

What it basically means, is that given an algorithm that's time of runnning depends on a variable N, if you take N out to N -> infinity, it can be modeled using a simple function (usually). For example:

Code:
for(i=0;i<N;i++)
    dostuff;


This algorithm is of the order O(N), as it takes N iterations to complete.

Code:
for(i=0;i<N;i++)
      for(j=0;j<N;j++)
          dostuff;


This algorithm has a complexity of order O(N^2), which is bigger than N,

but

Code:

for(i=0;i<N;i++)
     dostuff;

for(j=0;j<N;j++)
      dostuff;


is an algorithm with a complexity of order O(N), not O(2N), because as you take N to infinity, 2 becomes insignificant.

This concept is similar to sizes of infinity:

(א is aleph. I have a hebrew keyboard.)

Take the group of all integers between 0 and positive infinity.
Donate the size of this group as א-null and call it N.

Now, take the group of all subgroups within N (As in, the group containing (1), the group containing (2), containing (1,2) etc. for all numbers).

For given number B, and subgroup G, the number in B can either be a part of the subgroup G, or not a part of the subgroup G. This allows for 2 subgroups per each number in B, which results in 2^(א-null) subgroups, a degree of infinity which is bigger than א-null. (I did not make up this proof. it is well known, there is no point arguing it.)

Furthermore, you can take the group of all subgroups possible within the group of all subgroups possible within B, and you end up (using a similar proof) with 2^(2^(א-null)), which is bigger than the previous size we found.

There is a theory, which name's escapes me now, but is very well known and is unproven, and if I'm not mistaken proven to be unprovable, that states that there is no order of infinity between א-n and 2^(א-n), but I dont remeber the specifics.

Whats more, just to get people thinking, if I can use the proof 2 para's back, to increase the size of my infinity, I can keep doing it, and end up with an infinity of the infinite degree. This concept is known as Transfinity.
Again, this is not BS I'm making up, but stuff other, famous, incredibly crazy, mathematicians proved, or theorized.

Have a happy pre-perplex-city-winterish-holiday.

PostPosted: Sat Dec 25, 2004 4:52 am
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tanner
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thank you avenger -- you have said exactly what i wished to say if i had the patience and eloquence that you obviously have

the various proofs and the mathematicians who devised them are easy to find if a little difficult to understand without some knowledge of number theory

cantor and hilbert come immediately to mind.
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PostPosted: Sat Dec 25, 2004 5:32 am
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Sygerrik
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This is very enlightening, but does it help us find the cube? If there were an inifinite number of messages to read, this would be urgent and important. As it is, it's sort of deviating from the topic at hand. What are we going to do to find the missing messages? What use are we going to make of the messages we already have? These are the questions that face us.
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PostPosted: Sat Dec 25, 2004 1:43 pm
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Chris K
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Quote:
How can you test that a number never ends? If you keep calculating digits, at some point, you'll die. Pass on the torth, and at some point the next person will die. Who's to say that the last number someone looks at won't be the 2nd to last number in the value?


No. e has been proved transcendental.
That means it isn't the answer to an algerbraic equation.

It is also irrational. That means it can't be written as a fraction.

That means the number never ends. If it ended it could be written as a fraction.

(4.514312414 = 4514312414 / 1000000000 )

Pi is also transcendental.

Some numbers are irrational but not transcendental. For example, root two can't be written as a fraction but it is obviously the answer to an algerbraic equation ( x^2 = 2 )

PostPosted: Sat Dec 25, 2004 3:09 pm
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thebruce
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SilentAvenger wrote:
Nobody went and checked that for every value, 1 = sin(X)^2 + cos(X)^2, but it has been proven to be true. Furthermore, nobody went and checked that there are an infinite number of primes, but it has been proven. This is the magic of math.

It has been proven to be true by the fact that to date all values calculated have correctly been explained by the formula. I'm not so much saying any of this is wrong, the math is accurate, and it's useful and it's definitely a representation of the where our intelligence as humanity has come. But what I'm saying is that any formula where the variable can be any number, and is used as proof that any number will result in a predictable answer, is not the same as an exact value. ie, x=2 is as much of a mathematical certainty for all intents and purposes as sin(x)^2+cos(x)^2=1 but the difference is x=2 defines a specific value, whereas sin and cos, which deal with an infinite limit (x can be any number) can still give a certain answer but the evidence isn't a certainty like x=2 is a certainty. I guess I'm digging myself in a whole here because I'm taking math outside of the realm of definitive answers, which is pretty much contrary to mathematics... philosophy and math don't mix well Smile

Basically, when dealing with infinity, any formula can be assumed to be true as long as the answer is correct. But all it takes is one result to not match and the formula needs to be re-evaluated. But how can we ever know if the value using an infinite number will ever turn up an incorrect result? Like I said before, there's no certainty that even a repeating number is truly repeating and never ending (to the certainty of the statement x=2). if our computers can calculate a number to its 10th digit, say 0.1231231231, that may be enough to assume that it's a repeating infinite number. But how would we know if 100 digits down the line, the 1 becomes a 2? Now assume that calculated repeating number is 2million digits long, and we've calculated 4 repetitions of that sequence... chances are, the math community would name that value as a repeating number. But what if a number changes 7 repititions down the road? What if it ends? We'd never know until we can calculate that long...

My point is, when it comes to dealing with the concept of an infinite number, even stating a number as infinite is based on an assumption that's based on as far as we've calculated. take the value one third. There's no decimal number we can write that will be 100% accurate. But, with the genius of math, we can express the value with a representation where infinity doesn't need to be calculated. 1/3. And we can work with that, where results may or may not represent an infinite value (assumed) if calculated, whether repeating or not repeating, like 1/7.

So yes, we can express a value in different ways in math, but when calculated as a decimal number, the only proof we have that it's infinite or repeating is entirely based on how far we can calculate the decimal number. So don't get me wrong, I'm not saying math is wrong, or any of the proof anyone's put forth is wrong - that absolutely ridiculous. I'm just trying to bring to light the difference in the certainty from statements like x=2 and y=2x where x -> infinity.

Quote:
2. When you have a limit, x -> n, you may very well treat x as if it were n, if it was mathematically feasible. For example:
sin(x)/x lim x->0. You cannot directly enter 0 into this equation, but you can calculate the projected that this function will have at x = 0. Because of that, if lim x->1, if you are taking x out to infinity, its value is truly one.

but that's the point - 'may very well', 'feasible'... mathematically, sure, for all intents and purposes... but x=1 will not always work for any value of x in lim x->1. Take the largest possible value our computing technology can calculate in a fomula where the answer is x->1, and x will still not = 1. if we know that x=(1/10)^n and can never reach 0, then strictly speaking, x != 0. That's like Douglas Adams saying that because we know the population of humanity is finite, and assuming the universe is infinite, then in the end, really the population of earth is 0. (humanity pop.) / (# of planets in the universe), (7billion) / (infinity)... which really the answer ->0. But we know that 7billion exist, so the answer is not 0. Mathematically you're basically saying that yeah, there are 0 humans in the universe, if you're stating that x=0 for lim x->0.

Quote:
Let X be the biggest number possible.
For every X, there will be an X+1 which is bigger than X,
therefore X does not exist -> There is an infinite number of numbers.

And the whole concept of "grasping" something is a different philosophical debate on its own, which I will not get into now.

hehe exactly... for calculatable math, infinity goes beyond comprehension. But for mathematical expression, sure, it can be expressed in various ways. But for a value to be calculated, somehow 'infinity' has to be removed, otherwise the certainty only -> 100% Smile




Quote:
For given number B, and subgroup G, the number in B can either be a part of the subgroup G, or not a part of the subgroup G. This allows for 2 subgroups per each number in B, which results in 2^(א-null) subgroups, a degree of infinity which is bigger than א-null. (I did not make up this proof. it is well known, there is no point arguing it.)


oh I'm not arguing it, I'm positive it's a reliable formula. I'm just saying that the only way to prove it is to calculate it with a value, which removes the concept of infinity from the equation. The only way to prove an equation is to test it with a value, so you need to set up a system with values that prove the equation works. But then you can never know if there is one value that will not agree with the equation if there are infinite number of tests to run. If you run 1000000 tests, and they are all successful, how would you know if the 2000000th test would prove unsuccessful? ie, the formula is only true in so far as any calculation done with it returns the expected result. It's like, we can never know the true value of e because we can never calculated every digit in the sequence (assuming it's a truly infinite number). So that's why e is represented as a variable, not a decimal number. Calculating it using a decimal number would knowingly introduce a likely inaccuracy in the equation result, based on the assumption it's an infinite number. But e we can work with. Same with pi. Assuming infinite, we'll never truly know the accurate value of pi. Calculating math using the pi variable should never return a decimal value we can trust with 100% certainty to be accurate unless pi was somehow nullified from the equation, or the result itself contains the variable pi.

That's what I'm trying to grasp. I haven't seen an equation where infinity is an input value, and that has been able to calculate a decimal value that we know for certain to be 100% accurate, without somehow removing infinity from the equation - either by substituting 'infinity' with a decimal value, or by assuming a 'close enough' decimal value, 'for all intents and purposes'.

Quote:
Furthermore, you can take the group of all subgroups possible within the group of all subgroups possible within B, and you end up (using a similar proof) with 2^(2^(א-null)), which is bigger than the previous size we found.


right, and for any value of (א-null), the result will be as expected, a bigger number. But when you a value in to calculate a result, you remove infinity.

Quote:
There is a theory, which name's escapes me now, but is very well known and is unproven, and if I'm not mistaken proven to be unprovable, that states that there is no order of infinity between א-n and 2^(א-n), but I dont remeber the specifics.


The result I'm seeing with these proofs is simply that with y=2^x where x=infinity, then y is a greater degree of infinity than x. But that's as far as I can go with that. It's an unprovable statement beyond that proof. ie, as soon as you try to prove that y>x, you've removed infinity from the equation, because x is no longer infinity, it's a specific value. The formula simply proves that for any value x, y is greater. It doesn't prove that infinity can be greater than infinity.

Quote:
Whats more, just to get people thinking, if I can use the proof 2 para's back, to increase the size of my infinity, I can keep doing it, and end up with an infinity of the infinite degree. This concept is known as Transfinity.
Again, this is not BS I'm making up, but stuff other, famous, incredibly crazy, mathematicians proved, or theorized.


yeah, transfinity is a mathematical expression of infinity with which to work in mathematical equations. But those equations can never result in a certain finite value without the removal, nullification, or replacement of all instances of 'infinity' with finite values.

To get back on topic, as far as the chance of any sequence appearing in e at some point, barring the replacement or removal of the assumption that the length of e is infinite, is that the chance will ->100%. Mathematically it can be expressed with a representation of the infinite length of e, and so with enough computing power, we could theoretically punch in any sequence, any length of sequence, and the system may at some point produce the position at which it's found. But that process, assuming e is infinite, may take anywhere from 1 minute, to 1 millenium, to 1 trillion years, to 10^N years Smile At what point do we say the number either exists or does not exist? We can never draw that conclusion with absolute certainty, if e is indeed an infinite number.

I guess philosophy and math don't mix... Razz

Hope everyone had a great Christmas/whatever special event you may or may not be celebrating...! Wink

Ok I promise not to reply any more regarding this specific topic... ie, if my post about e or infinity is more than 2 paragraphs, I won't reply Smile
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PostPosted: Sun Dec 26, 2004 1:05 am
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SilentAvenger
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I'm not going to ramble on and on for a long time here, as its not going to help anyone, and PPC starts in a few days anyways Razz

I suggest we go and chat sometime thebruce, I'm hochberggSPLAThotmail.com for MSN and SAvenger7 for AIM, if you ever feel like doing so.

I'm just going to say that you seem to have misunderstood the meaning of "proof". When you prove something mathematically, you are saying that because of the basic set of axioms at the base of mathematics, the thing you say will ALWAYS happen.

For example, for 1/3, I can prove, via induction, that no matter what digit you calculate, the next one will always be 3. This means that yes, I know for a FACT that it never ends, and keeps repeating. I dont only know to the last calculated digit, but to any digit.

Furthermore, infinity is a very well defined concept in math, and there is no use arguing against that.

One before last, I think it has been proven that pi and e are irrational. This means that, yes, you know that no matter how many digits you take it out, it'll never repeat. This is a fact that is derived out of the axioms of math, and therefore is, and will be, (as long as the axioms exist) completely and undeniably true, and no matter how many digits you calculate, it'll never repeat. This is the meaning of proof.

Last, we (in this discussion), dont know enough about e and its properties to say if there truly is every finite-length number in e. We would have to ask people who deal with number theory all the time, and know their stuff to really get a good answer, and it might change between mathematicians Smile

PostPosted: Sun Dec 26, 2004 10:58 am
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tanner
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well said avenger -- trouble is some folks mistake evidence for proof and vice verci

the only absolutes are mathematical -- the hypothetical (if axioms are true ) and the proof resulting in a conclusion is all that exists with maths

mathematics is NOT an evidence based science --- its structure is proof

mathematical theorems are utturly different from scientific theories

IMO
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PostPosted: Sun Dec 26, 2004 1:42 pm
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Olorin
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[OT]

Woooha ! So many hours without a post in this thread ?!?


What's wrong with you people?

Let's talk about non-euclidean geometries, the string theory and...oh, the unified force theory, why not?

Smile
heck, if the ARG was not enough, this thread sure will leave some of us perplex Smile

F.O.R.

PostPosted: Sun Dec 26, 2004 11:38 pm
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Chris K
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Oh dear.
That was the longest, wrongest post I've ever read.
How can you talk about the beauty of mathmatics and get it so wrong?

So we can never know that some numbers never end?
Rubbish.
I'll prove it now.

-----------------------------------

Do you agree that if a decimal number ends, it can be written as a fraction?
You would just move the decimal point to the end and divide by 100000000 or whatever.

For example: 4.5125 = 45125 / 10000

OK.
So now, if a numbers can't be written as a fraction then it never ends.

I'll prove it with SQRT( 2 ).

SQRT( 2 ) = a / b ............... let's say that it can be written as a fraction.
2 = a ^ 2 / b ^ 2
2b ^ 2 = a ^ 2 ............. This means that a^2 is even, so a must be even, so we can introduce a simpler number which is half of a.
2b ^ 2 = ( 2c ) ^ 2
2b ^ 2 = 4c ^ 2
b ^ 2 = 2c ^ 2 ............ Now we'll do the same with b.
4d ^ 2 = 2c ^ 2
2d ^ 2 = c^2
2 = ( c ^ 2 ) / ( d ^ 2 )
SQRT( 2 ) = c / d

We are now left with a simpler fraction than we started with. You can see that we could just do this again. and again and again.

Of course, you can't keep simplifying a fraction.

Therefore you can't write SQRT( 2 ) as a fraction, because if you could, you would be able to simplify it infinately.

PostPosted: Mon Dec 27, 2004 5:55 am
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tanner
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That was the longest, wrongest post I've ever read.
How can you talk about the beauty of mathmatics and get it so wrong?


are you talking bout thebruces post?

if you are then i have to agree Very Happy

like i said - mathematics needs no evidence -- if the proof is rigorous then the calculation of e (for example) need never be done to know that it can never repeat
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PostPosted: Mon Dec 27, 2004 8:52 am
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Nightmare Tony
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One time as a kid for giggles, I tried for making pi into a fraction. I forget the method exactly but it was that if the fraction result was lower or higher, you would double the upper lower term and adjust the upper term to be closer to pi. This kept going to the calculator's limit, so I ended up with a fraction to the 7's digit place on each term. If I remember, you start with 22/7 and go from there....
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PostPosted: Mon Dec 27, 2004 9:55 am
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